Can anyone explain to me why the titular question "Would I lie to you?" is repeatedly answered in the affirmative?
Elton John purports to be telling us why they call it "the blues" but there's absolutely nothing in the song that even comes close to explaining it.
It's amazing - and a little scary - how Charlie Puth manages to get "nothing on me" to rhyme with "call away" and "save the day".
Slightly off topic but here’s a really nice piece in praise of Would I Lie to You? http://freakytrigger.co.uk/popular/2011/10/charles-and-eddie-would-i-lie-to-you/
I like the song (the song part anyway) but the ungrammatical title line really grates on me. The funny thing is she does sing "I am his, and he is mine" not "him is mine".
I think art (song lyrics, poetry etc) allows artists to play with language. So I'm not sure if "and you for me" should be considered a mistake. They wanted to make it sound catchy, not convincing. There must be 50 different "You And I" songs, but shouldn't that be "You And Me"? Like Krystle Carrington said to Nick Toscanni: "...or is it I?"
Yes, you wouldn't say "this is the story of I" but I find that a lot of people seem to say "you-and-I" almost as one word, no matter the context. Here's another one. It should be "the magic between you and me" but, as you say, allow for poetic licence; it does have to rhyme (although it's not a good rhyme either).
